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Co-reg vs. Pre-pop (4)


09-14-2014 03:50 PM #1 jimmymob (Senior Member)
Co-reg vs. Pre-pop

Sorry for the n00bish question, but even though I've been in this industry for years, I'm still a bit fuzzy co-reg vs. pre-pop.

Since most offers are explicitly "No Co-reg" I wanted to see if someone could clarify that there is or is not a difference between pre-populating 1 offer, vs. co-reg.

My example is this, I run a lot of dating ads. I found that I can pretty easily grab email and first name on my lander. Opt-in is usually between 25-50% when I just ask for first name and email (surprised me when I first started doing this, because conversions on dating offers are so low, I assume because of shaving). I then forward them to the offer page where they again fill in this information. Surprisingly, I still get a lot of conversions doing this. But I've started experimenting with using curl to per-populate the data fields that they already filled on my page. Most of the time they still have to enter some additional info, set a password, then click submit or whatever. I haven't actually run the offers yet, but I've just been playing with the coding.

Would this be considered the same as co-reg or no?


09-14-2014 08:26 PM #2 iAmAttila (Veteran Member)

Id cloak my lander and double meta refresh showing them a version without data grab just to be on the safe side.


09-14-2014 10:11 PM #3 jimmymob (Senior Member)

Quote Originally Posted by iAmAttila View Post
Id cloak my lander and double meta refresh showing them a version without data grab just to be on the safe side.
Yeh, definitely! After dealing with some nasty advertisers, I always do this now TBH, regardless of content. Only exception is mobile.


09-15-2014 12:40 AM #4 zeno (Administrator)

Yup, do as Attila suggested.

This isn't explicitly co-reg IMO but yeah, don't trust advertisers - and you don't want to risk getting a good campaign pulled over differences of opinion.


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