Hey guys,
I'm interested in some offers that are only allowed via email.
My question surrounds how far from the original traffic source these users need to be. It makes sense that someone that's been receiving emails from me for months is fair game, but is it OK to have the following setup:
//////////////////////////////////////
Traffic Source -> Opt-In -> Primary Offer -> Confirm Opt-In -> Email-Only Offer Via Email
OR ALTERNATIVELY
Traffic Source -> Squeeze -> Confirm -> Email-only Offer
/////////////////////////////////////
I'm just not sure why there's an 'email only' distinction if the above is acceptable.
Thanks!
i would ask that question to your AM / the advertiser directly as it may vary on a case by case basis depending on the advertiser's reason for only accepting email as it could vary
It could be because of the fact that, by sending them e-mail only leads, you are essentially sending them 'openers' (those who opened your original email with the email only offer link). So this may make the leads more valuable to the advertiser, as they are more responsive. However, I agree with the poster above, it is always best to double check.
Anyone else have thoughts here?
The user has to opt in to receive third party emails, pretty sure that's all that needs to happen.
All those are fine.
Just as long as you're not advertising with the advertisers brand I think you're going to find little to no issues.
Let me know if you have specific questions about specific merchants and I'm happy to help.